[CISCO] 350-401 - CCNP Enterprise (ENCOR) Exam Dumps & Study Guide
The Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) 350-401 certification is the foundational exam for several prestigious Cisco certifications, including the CCNP Enterprise and the CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure. As organizations continue to evolve their network architectures to support digital transformation, the ability to implement and manage robust, scalable, and secure enterprise networks has become a highly sought-after skill. The 350-401 validates your core knowledge of enterprise networking, including infrastructure, virtualization, and security. it is an essential milestone for any network professional looking to advance their career and prove their technical mastery.
Overview of the Exam
The 350-401 exam is a rigorous assessment that covers the core technologies required to implement and operate a Cisco enterprise network. It is a 120-minute exam consisting of approximately 100 questions. The exam is designed to test your knowledge of enterprise-grade networking technologies and your ability to apply them to real-world scenarios. From dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture and virtualization to infrastructure as code and security, the 350-401 ensures that you have the skills necessary to build and maintain modern enterprise networks. Achieving the 350-401 certification proves that you are a highly skilled professional who can handle the technical demands of enterprise networking.
Target Audience
The 350-401 is intended for network professionals who have a solid understanding of Cisco's enterprise-grade networking technologies. It is ideal for individuals in roles such as:
1. Mid-level Network Engineers
2. Network Administrators
3. Systems Engineers
4. Network Architects
To be successful, candidates should have at least three to five years of experience in enterprise-grade networking and a thorough understanding of Cisco's core networking platforms and features.
Key Topics Covered
The 350-401 exam is organized into six main domains:
1. Architecture (15%): Understanding enterprise network design and wireless concepts.
2. Virtualization (10%): Implementing device and network virtualization.
3. Infrastructure (30%): Configuring and managing Layer 2 and Layer 3 infrastructure, including IP services.
4. Network Assurance (10%): Monitoring and managing enterprise networks using tools like Cisco DNA Center.
5. Security (20%): Securing enterprise networks using technologies like AAA, ACLs, and VPNs.
6. Automation (15%): Implementing network automation and programmability using APIs and scripting.
Benefits of Getting Certified
Earning the 350-401 certification provides several significant benefits. First, it offers industry recognition of your specialized expertise in Cisco's enterprise-grade networking technologies. As a leader in the networking industry, Cisco skills are in high demand across the globe. Second, it serves as the core requirement for several advanced certifications, allowing you to further specialize in areas like wireless or SD-WAN. Third, it can lead to increased career opportunities and higher salary potential in a variety of roles. Fourth, it demonstrates your commitment to professional excellence and your dedication to staying current with the latest networking practices.
Why Choose NotJustExam.com for Your 350-401 Prep?
The 350-401 exam is challenging and requires a deep understanding of Cisco's core networking technologies. NotJustExam.com is the best resource to help you master this material. Our platform offers an extensive bank of practice questions that are designed to mirror the actual exam’s format and difficulty.
What makes NotJustExam.com stand out is our focus on interactive logic and the accuracy of our explanations. We don’t just provide a list of questions; we provide a high-quality learning experience. Every question in our bank includes an in-depth, accurate explanation that helps you understand the technical reasoning behind the correct networking solutions. This ensures that you are truly learning the material and building the confidence needed to succeed on the exam. Our content is regularly updated to reflect the latest Cisco features and exam updates. With NotJustExam.com, you can approach your 350-401 exam with the assurance that comes from thorough, high-quality preparation. Start your journey toward becoming a Cisco Certified Professional today with us!
Free [CISCO] 350-401 - CCNP Enterprise (ENCOR) Practice Questions Preview
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Question 1
What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?
- A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
- B. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB.
- C. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions.
- D. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI suggests that the answer is indeed A.
The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
Reasoning:
The Routing Information Base (RIB) is the master routing table that contains all known routes. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is derived from the RIB and is optimized for fast forwarding decisions. The FIB contains the best paths to each destination network, and it's used by the router's forwarding engine to quickly forward packets.
Why other options are not correct:
- B: The RIB does not maintain a mirror image of the FIB. The FIB is derived from the RIB, not the other way around.
- C: The RIB is not directly involved in making IP source prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is used for destination-based forwarding. Source-based routing is less common and handled differently.
- D: The RIB is where all IP routing information is stored, not the FIB. The FIB is a subset of the RIB, containing only the best routes.
Citations:
- Understanding Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF), https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software/12942-cefswitching.html
- RIB, https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/RIB-Routing-Information-Base
- FIB, https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/forwarding-information-base-fib
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Question 2
Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?
- A. policing
- B. classification
- C. marking
- D. shaping
Correct Answer:
C
Explanation:
The AI concurs with the suggested answer.
The correct answer is C. marking.
Reasoning:
Marking is the QoS component that alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network. Marking modifies bits in the packet header, such as DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point) or IP Precedence, to indicate the priority of the packet. This allows network devices to make decisions about how to handle the traffic based on these markings.
Reasons for not choosing other options:
- A. policing: Policing enforces traffic rates and can drop or remark packets that exceed the configured rate, but it doesn't inherently alter packets to change their treatment in the same way that marking does initially. Policing reacts to traffic already present.
- B. classification: Classification identifies traffic based on various criteria, but it doesn't modify the packet itself. It's a prerequisite for other QoS actions.
- D. shaping: Shaping delays packets to conform to a defined traffic profile. While it affects how traffic is sent, it doesn't directly alter the packet's header information for differentiated treatment in the same way marking does.
In summary, marking directly modifies the packet's header to influence its treatment, making it the most accurate answer.
Therefore, based on the provided information and understanding of QoS mechanisms, the best answer is C. marking.
Citations:
- Quality of Service (QoS) Overview, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_mqc/configuration/15-mt/qos-mqc-15-mt-book/qos-oview.html
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Question 3
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
See interactive view.
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The correct mapping of QoS components to their descriptions is as follows:
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Traffic Policing:
- Causes TCP retransmissions
- Introduces no delay and jitter
- Drops excessive traffic
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Traffic Shaping:
- Buffers excessive traffic
- Introduces delay and jitter
- Delays rather than drops traffic
Reasoning:
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Traffic Policing: Policing mechanisms enforce traffic rate limits by dropping packets that exceed the configured rate. This packet dropping can lead to TCP retransmissions, as TCP interprets dropped packets as a sign of congestion. Policing does not inherently introduce delay or jitter because it typically operates without buffering.
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Traffic Shaping: Shaping, on the other hand, smooths out traffic bursts by buffering excess traffic. This buffering introduces delay, as packets are held in a queue until they can be transmitted within the configured rate. The variable delay introduced by queuing contributes to jitter. Shaping avoids dropping packets, opting instead to delay them.
Why the other options are not correct: Mismatching the descriptions would misrepresent the fundamental differences in how policing and shaping handle traffic exceeding configured limits. Policing is about immediate enforcement (dropping), while shaping is about smoothing over time (delaying).
These functionalities are well-documented in various networking resources. For example, the concepts are covered in the Cisco documentation and various QoS guides.
The following points summarize the key differences and reinforce the chosen answer:
- Policing drops packets, potentially causing TCP retransmissions, which can degrade application performance if drops are frequent.
- Shaping buffers packets, which can increase latency and jitter but prevents packet loss, leading to more predictable throughput.
This distinction is critical for network engineers configuring QoS policies to meet the specific requirements of different applications and traffic types.
The core difference lies in the handling of traffic exceeding the configured rate: dropping (policing) vs. delaying (shaping). This fundamental difference impacts network behavior and application performance.
In conclusion, the suggested answer is accurate because it correctly pairs traffic policing with dropping excessive traffic and causing TCP retransmissions, and traffic shaping with buffering traffic and introducing delay and jitter.
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Question 4
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
- A. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions.
- B. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane.
- C. It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table.
- D. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler.
Correct Answer:
C
Explanation:
The suggested answer is correct.
The correct answer is C: It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table.
Reasoning:
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is an advanced layer 3 switching technology used to improve the performance of packet forwarding in a network. It achieves this by creating and maintaining two main data structures in the data plane: the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) and the Adjacency Table.
- Forwarding Information Base (FIB): The FIB contains a mirror image of the routing table. When routing changes occur, the FIB is updated to reflect these changes. The FIB contains all the known routes and their corresponding next-hop information.
- Adjacency Table: The adjacency table contains precomputed Layer 2 addressing information for all FIB entries. This table is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses, allowing for faster packet forwarding without ARP lookups for each packet.
By maintaining these two tables in the data plane, CEF enables faster and more efficient packet forwarding because forwarding decisions can be made directly by the line cards without involving the route processor for each packet.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A: The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions. This statement is generally incorrect for CEF. CEF is designed to offload packet switching from the CPU to the line cards, which use the FIB and adjacency table to make forwarding decisions. Direct CPU involvement in every packet would negate the performance benefits of CEF.
- B: It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane. While older switching methods like "fast switching" used a route cache, CEF does not primarily rely on a route cache. Instead, it uses the FIB and adjacency table for forwarding decisions.
- D: It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler. CEF operates in the data plane and does not rely on the IOS scheduler for forwarding decisions. The IOS scheduler is relevant for process switching, which is a slower method of packet forwarding.
In summary, CEF's efficiency comes from its FIB and adjacency table, which reside in the data plane and enable fast, hardware-based forwarding decisions, thus minimizing CPU involvement and eliminating the need for per-packet route lookups via the IOS scheduler.
- Cisco Express Forwarding - Cisco, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipswitch/configuration/xe-16/ips-xe-16-book/ips-cef.html
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Question 5
What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?
- A. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware
- B. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises
- C. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased
- D. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
The AI concurs with the suggested answer.
The suggested answer is D: lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other.
Reasoning: On-premises infrastructure offers the significant advantage of lower latency because systems are physically located in close proximity to each other. This minimizes the distance data needs to travel, resulting in faster communication and response times. This is especially important for applications that require real-time data processing or have strict latency requirements. Cloud infrastructure, on the other hand, introduces additional latency due to the distance between the user and the cloud data center, as well as the network infrastructure involved.
Reasons for not choosing other options:
- A: ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware - This is a key benefit of cloud infrastructure, not on-premises. Cloud services offer scalability on demand, while on-premises requires hardware procurement and installation.
- B: less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises - On the contrary, on-premises infrastructure typically requires more power and cooling resources because the organization is responsible for managing the physical environment.
- C: faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased - Cloud infrastructure generally provides faster deployment times as the infrastructure is already in place and readily available. On-premises deployments involve procurement, installation, and configuration, which can be time-consuming.
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Question 6
DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
See interactive view.
Explanation:
Based on professional knowledge and the discussion summary, the AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The provided drag-and-drop arrangement accurately reflects the characteristics of each infrastructure deployment type.
The primary reason for this recommendation is that the suggested answer correctly matches the defining features of on-premises, cloud, and hybrid cloud deployments based on industry best practices and common understanding.
Here's a breakdown of the reasoning:
- On-Premises:
- Customizable hardware: On-premises infrastructure allows organizations to select and configure hardware according to their specific needs.
- More suitable for companies: This is true for companies that require high levels of control, compliance, or have specific performance requirements that are not easily met by cloud solutions.
- Cloud:
- Easy Scalability: Cloud environments offer on-demand scaling, allowing resources to be adjusted quickly based on workload demands.
- Automated Backups and Recovery: Cloud providers typically offer automated backup and disaster recovery services, simplifying data protection.
- Requires a Stable Internet Connection: Cloud services are accessed over the internet, so a reliable connection is essential.
- Hybrid Cloud:
- Mix of on-premises, private cloud and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between the platforms: Hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services, enabling organizations to leverage the benefits of both. Orchestration ensures seamless integration and management across these environments.
Why the other arrangements would be incorrect: Misplacing any of the characteristics would lead to an inaccurate representation of the infrastructure deployment types. For example, assigning "Requires a Stable Internet Connection" to "On-Premises" would be incorrect because on-premises infrastructure primarily relies on a local network.
Similarly, assigning "Customizable Hardware" to "Cloud" would also be incorrect, as while some cloud providers offer customized solutions, the level of customization is generally less than what is available with on-premises deployments.
Citations:
- Cloud Computing Basics, https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/resources/cloud-computing-basics/what-is-cloud-computing
- What is Hybrid Cloud?, https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/hybrid-cloud
- On-Premise vs. Cloud: Key Differences, https://www.oracle.com/uk/difference/on-premise-vs-cloud/
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Question 7
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
- A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
- B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
- C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
- D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
The suggested answer is B.
The AI agrees with the suggested answer, which is B: It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
Reasoning: Traffic shaping works by buffering (queuing) excess traffic that exceeds a defined rate. This buffering delays the traffic, ensuring that the output rate conforms to the configured parameters. This controlled delay helps to smooth out traffic bursts and prevent congestion by sending packets at a consistent rate.
Reasons for not choosing the other options:
- A: It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. - This describes traffic policing, not shaping. Policing drops or marks packets, while shaping delays them.
- C: It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. - Fragmentation is a different mechanism and not directly related to traffic shaping for congestion management. While fragmentation can help with MTU issues, it doesn't address congestion in the same way that shaping does.
- D: It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. - This describes a form of congestion avoidance, possibly using Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED), but it's not traffic shaping.
In summary, traffic shaping alleviates network congestion by buffering and queuing packets that exceed the committed rate, thereby smoothing traffic flow and preventing bursts that can lead to congestion.
Citations:
- Traffic Shaping, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_plcshp/configuration/15-mt/qos-plcshp-15-mt-book/qos-traffic-shape.html
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Question 8
An engineer is describing QoS to a client.
Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
- A. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible.
- B. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic.
- C. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible.
- D. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate.
- E. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it.
Correct Answer:
AD
Explanation:
Based on the question and discussion content, the AI agrees with the suggested answer AD.
Reasoning:
The correct options related to traffic policing are A and D.
- A. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible. Traffic policing is ideally implemented near the source to prevent unnecessary bandwidth consumption by non-compliant traffic. By policing closer to the source, you can drop or remark traffic early, conserving network resources.
- D. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate. Policing enforces traffic rate limits by dropping or remarking packets that exceed the configured rate. This ensures that traffic conforms to the defined policy.
Reasons for excluding other options:
- B. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic. - This is incorrect because policing typically drops or remarks traffic, rather than queuing it. Queuing is a characteristic of traffic shaping, not policing.
- C. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible. - This is incorrect because policing is most effective when performed closer to the source to prevent congestion along the network path.
- E. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it. - This is incorrect. While remarking might cause delay, policing primarily involves dropping or immediately remarking exceeding traffic, not delaying it through queuing.
Citations:
- QoS Mechanisms Explained, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_plcshp/configuration/15-mt/qos-plcshp-15-mt-book/qos-plcshp-ov.html
- Traffic Policing vs. Shaping, https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/traffic-policing-vs-traffic-shaping/
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Question 9
Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?
- A. vBond
- B. vSmart
- C. vManage
- D. WAN Edge
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The recommended answer is A - vBond.
Reasoning: The vBond orchestrator is responsible for the initial authentication and connection of devices within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric. It facilitates the discovery of vSmart controllers and vManage, and plays a crucial role in bringing up the network.
Reasons for not choosing other options:
- vSmart controllers are responsible for the control plane, handling routing and policy decisions within the SD-WAN fabric.
- vManage is responsible for the management plane, providing a centralized interface for configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting of the SD-WAN.
- WAN Edge routers are the data plane elements that forward traffic based on the policies dictated by the control plane.
The vBond orchestrator is the only component that properly handles the orchestration plane in Cisco SD-WAN.
Citations:
- Cisco SD-WAN Orchestration Plane, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/sd-wan/white-paper-c11-741757.html
- Cisco SD-WAN Components, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/software-defined-wan/sd-wan-architecture.html
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Question 10
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
- A. edge node
- B. vBond controller
- C. access switch
- D. core switch
- E. border node
Correct Answer:
AE
Explanation:
Based on the question and available discussion, the AI recommends accepting the suggested answer of A and E.
Reasoning: The discussion consensus, backed by explanations of SD-Access fabric roles, points to Edge Node and Border Node as correct. Edge nodes connect endpoints, while border nodes connect the SD-Access fabric to external networks. This aligns with Cisco's SD-Access architecture.
Why other options are incorrect:
- B. vBond controller: vBond is part of the SD-WAN solution and is not a device role within the SD-Access fabric itself.
- C. Access Switch: While access switches exist in a network, 'access switch' is not a specific defined device role within the SD-Access fabric architecture. Edge node is the correct term here.
- D. Core Switch: Similar to access switches, 'core switch' is a general networking term. While core switches might exist in the physical underlay of an SD-Access network, 'core switch' isn't a defined role in the SD-Access fabric overlay.
Citations:
- Cisco SD-Access Architecture, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/software-defined-access/nb-09-sda-solution-overview-cte-en.html