[CISCO] 350-601 - CCNP Data Center (DCCOR) Exam Dumps & Study Guide
The Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR) 350-601 certification is the foundational core exam for several prestigious Cisco certifications, including the CCNP Data Center and the CCIE Data Center. As organizations continue to modernize their data center environments to support cloud-native applications and AI workloads, the ability to implement and manage robust, scalable, and secure data center infrastructures has become a highly sought-after skill. The 350-601 validates your core knowledge of Cisco's data center technologies, including network, compute, and storage solutions. It is an essential milestone for any professional looking to specialize in modern data center technologies.
Overview of the Exam
The 350-601 exam is a rigorous assessment that covers the core technologies required to implement and operate a Cisco data center solution. It is a 120-minute exam consisting of approximately 100 questions. The exam is designed to test your knowledge of enterprise-grade data center technologies and your ability to apply them to real-world scenarios. From network and compute to storage and automation, the 350-601 ensures that you have the skills necessary to build and maintain modern data center networks. Achieving the 350-601 certification proves that you are a highly skilled professional who can handle the technical demands of Cisco data center networking.
Target Audience
The 350-601 is intended for professionals who have a solid understanding of Cisco's data center networking technologies. It is ideal for individuals in roles such as:
1. Mid-level Data Center Engineers
2. Network Administrators
3. Systems Engineers
4. Data Center Architects
To be successful, candidates should have at least three to five years of experience in data center networking and a thorough understanding of Cisco's core data center platforms and features.
Key Topics Covered
The 350-601 exam is organized into five main domains:
1. Network (25%): Configuring and managing L2/L3 data center network connectivity, including Nexus switches and ACI.
2. Compute (25%): Implementing and managing compute solutions using Cisco UCS.
3. Storage Network (20%): Configuring and managing storage networking solutions, including Fibre Channel and iSCSI.
4. Automation (15%): Implementing data center automation and orchestration using APIs and tools.
5. Security (15%): Securing data center environments using technologies like firewalls and micro-segmentation.
Benefits of Getting Certified
Earning the 350-601 certification provides several significant benefits. First, it offers industry recognition of your specialized expertise in Cisco's data center technologies. As a leader in the data center industry, Cisco skills are in high demand across the globe. Second, it serves as the core requirement for several advanced certifications, allowing you to further specialize in areas like data center design or automation. Third, it can lead to increased career opportunities and higher salary potential in a variety of roles. Fourth, it demonstrates your commitment to professional excellence and your dedication to staying current with the latest data center practices.
Why Choose NotJustExam.com for Your 350-601 Prep?
The 350-601 exam is challenging and requires a deep understanding of Cisco's core data center technologies. NotJustExam.com is the best resource to help you master this material. Our platform offers an extensive bank of practice questions that are designed to mirror the actual exam’s format and difficulty.
What makes NotJustExam.com stand out is our focus on interactive logic and the accuracy of our explanations. We don’t just provide a list of questions; we provide a high-quality learning experience. Every question in our bank includes an in-depth, accurate explanation that helps you understand the technical reasoning behind the correct data center solutions. This ensures that you are truly learning the material and building the confidence needed to succeed on the exam. Our content is regularly updated to reflect the latest Cisco features and exam updates. With NotJustExam.com, you can approach your 350-601 exam with the assurance that comes from thorough, high-quality preparation. Start your journey toward becoming a Cisco Certified Professional today with us!
Free [CISCO] 350-601 - CCNP Data Center (DCCOR) Practice Questions Preview
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Question 1
DRAG DROP -
An engineer is implementing NetFlow on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch.
Drag and drop the NetFlow commands from the left into the correct order they must be entered on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
See interactive view.
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The correct order of NetFlow configuration on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is Feature, Exporter, Record, Monitor, and then Interface.
Therefore, the suggested answer is correct because it reflects this order.
The suggested answer correctly orders the commands as: 1. feature netflow, 2. flow exporter, 3. flow record, 4. flow monitor, and 5. interface configuration.
This order is crucial because each step depends on the previous one. You must enable the feature first, then define where the NetFlow data will be exported, followed by defining what data to record, then creating a monitor to use the record and exporter, and finally applying the monitor to the interface.
There are no other answer options to consider since the question is a drag-and-drop ordering task.
Here's a breakdown of why each step is necessary and in the correct order:
- feature netflow: This command globally enables NetFlow on the switch. Without this, no NetFlow configuration will function.
- flow exporter: This defines the destination for the NetFlow data, including the IP address and UDP port of the collector.
- flow record: This defines the specific data fields that NetFlow will collect, such as source/destination IP addresses, ports, and traffic counters.
- flow monitor: This combines the exporter and record configurations into a single entity that can be applied to an interface.
- interface configuration: This applies the flow monitor to a specific interface, enabling NetFlow data collection on that interface.
The ordering is very important. For example, you can't configure a flow monitor without first defining a flow record and a flow exporter. Similarly, you can't apply a flow monitor to an interface if the feature netflow is not enabled.
Citations:
- Configuring NetFlow, Cisco, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus7000/sw/system_management/config/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_System_Management_Configuration_Guide/configuring_netflow.html
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Question 2
Which virtual MAC address is the default for HSRP version 2 group 10?
- A. 0000.5E00.0110
- B. 0000.0C9F.F00A
- C. 3784.0898.1C0A
- D. 0000.0C9F.F010
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
The AI concurs with the suggested answer, which is B. 0000.0C9F.F00A.
Reasoning:
The question asks for the default virtual MAC address for HSRP version 2 group 10. HSRP version 2 uses a MAC address range from 0000.0C9F.F000 to 0000.0C9F.FFFF. The last hexadecimal digits of the MAC address represent the HSRP group number. Group 10 in decimal is 'A' in hexadecimal. Therefore, the MAC address for group 10 (decimal) would be 0000.0C9F.F00A.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. 0000.5E00.0110: This MAC address is used for VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), not HSRPv2.
- C. 3784.0898.1C0A: This MAC address doesn't fall within the reserved range for HSRP or VRRP.
- D. 0000.0C9F.F010: This would be group 16 (decimal) since 10 in Hexadecimal represents the decimal number 16.
Citations:
- HSRP version 2 information - https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/15-mt/ipapp-15-mt-book/ipapp-hsrp.html
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Question 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the ERSPAN configuration in this environment is true?
- A. The session number of the source of ERSPAN spanned traffic must have a session ID of 47 for the traffic analyzer to receive the traffic.
- B. Host B is the source of ERSPAN spanned traffic and host A is the traffic analyzer.
- C. The session number of the source of ERSPAN spanned traffic must have a session ID of 48 for the traffic analyzer to receive the traffic.
- D. Host A is the source of ERSPAN spanned traffic and host B is the traffic analyzer.
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer, which is D. Host A is the source of ERSPAN spanned traffic and host B is the traffic analyzer.
Reasoning:
The exhibit shows that Switch A is configured to monitor traffic from VLAN 10 and forward it to the destination IP address 10.10.20.2, using ERSPAN session ID 47. Switch B is configured with the ERSPAN destination IP address as 10.10.10.2 (the IP address of Host A) and the same ERSPAN session ID 47. Therefore, Host A is the source and Host B is the destination (traffic analyzer). The key here is that the ERSPAN session ID must match for the traffic analyzer to receive the traffic.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option A: The session number refers to the ERSPAN session ID, which must match on the source and destination switches. In the exhibit the session ID is 47. So this option is incorrect.
- Option B: Host B cannot be the source because its configuration points to 10.10.10.2 as the destination. This suggests it's expecting ERSPAN traffic, rather than originating it.
- Option C: According to the exhibit, the session ID is 47, not 48.
Citations:
- Enhanced Remote SPAN, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/54sg/configuration/guide/config/monitor.html
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Question 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the routing table of the leaf switch are true? (Choose two.)
- A. 10.20.1.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.
- B. The next hop 10.0.1.14 for route 172.16.99.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
- C. 172.16.100.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.
- D. The next hop 10.1.168.95 for route 172.16.100.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
- E. The next hop 10.0.8.65 for route 10.20.1.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
Correct Answer:
AD
Explanation:
The AI recommends agreeing with the suggested answer, which is A and D.
Here's the reasoning:
Answer A is correct because the route 10.20.1.0/24 is marked as "direct, pervasive." This signifies that it is a Bridge Domain (BD) subnet directly connected and available throughout the ACI fabric. The "pervasive gateway" attribute confirms that this subnet is accessible across the entire ACI fabric.
Answer D is correct because the route 172.16.100.0/24 has a next hop of 10.1.168.95 and is labeled as "Internal." In ACI, external routes are learned via MP-BGP and redistributed within the fabric. The next hop for such external routes on a leaf switch will be the Tunnel Endpoint (TEP) address of a border leaf. Therefore, 10.1.168.95 represents the TEP address of a border leaf responsible for routing to 172.16.100.0/24.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
* **Answer B is incorrect** because based on the information provided, it's not possible to determine if 10.0.1.14 is the TEP address of a border leaf for the 172.16.99.0/24 route without more context.
* **Answer C is incorrect** because 172.16.100.0/24 is presented as an "Internal" route, meaning it's an external network that's being imported into ACI via MP-BGP, not a BD subnet within ACI.
* **Answer E is incorrect** because 10.0.8.65 is more likely to be a Spine switch IP in the ACI fabric, not a border leaf. Spines act as route reflectors in the MP-BGP setup, and leaves usually peer with spines for external route information. The discussion also points out that this is likely a loopback IP address of the Spine.
Citations:
- Cisco ACI Multi-Pod White Paper, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-737855.html
- ACI Routing and Forwarding, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-737030.html
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Question 5
Which mroute state is created when Bidirectional PIM is deployed at a site?
- A. *,G
- B. MVPN Type-6
- C. MVPN Type-7
- D. S,G
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer of A (*,G).
The reasoning is that Bidirectional PIM (PIM-BIDIR) is designed for scenarios with many sources and receivers, and it primarily uses (*,G) mroute state entries. This is because PIM-BIDIR aims to avoid building source-specific trees (SPT) and relies on a shared tree rooted at the Rendezvous Point (RP) for forwarding multicast traffic.
Other options are incorrect because:
- B (MVPN Type-6) and C (MVPN Type-7) are related to Multicast VPN (MVPN) configurations and not directly related to the mroute state created by Bidirectional PIM. MVPN Type-6 and Type-7 routes are used to distribute multicast forwarding information within an MVPN environment, which is a different context than basic PIM-BIDIR operation.
- D (S,G) mroute states are created in PIM-SM (Sparse Mode) when a receiver joins a multicast group and the traffic switches from the shared tree to the source tree. PIM-BIDIR avoids creating (S,G) states to simplify the forwarding process and reduce the amount of state information maintained by the routers.
The provided reference explains the fundamental concepts of PIM-BIDIR and its differences compared to PIM-SM. It highlights that PIM-BIDIR focuses on shared trees and avoids source-specific trees (SPTs), which aligns with the creation of (*,G) mroute states.
Citation:
- Multicast Bidirectional PIM, https://networklessons.com/multicast/multicast-bidirectional-pim
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Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the default gateway configuration of the vPC is true?
- A. Either switch can act as the active default gateway.
- B. N7K-1 acts as the default gateway for all traffic.
- C. N7K-2 forwards traffic that is destined for the default gateway by using the peer link.
- D. N7K-2 acts as the default gateway for all traffic.
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The correct answer is A. Either switch can act as the active default gateway.
Reasoning:
The `peer-gateway` command in vPC allows each vPC switch to act as the active default gateway for packets destined to the router MAC address of its vPC peer. This feature enables local forwarding, eliminating the need to traverse the vPC peer-link for default gateway traffic. This is possible because both HSRP (or similar FHRP) interfaces can forward traffic, and their MAC addresses are programmed with the 'G' (gateway) flag on both systems.
Why other options are incorrect:
- B. N7K-1 acts as the default gateway for all traffic. This is incorrect because with the `peer-gateway` command enabled, both vPC switches can act as the default gateway.
- C. N7K-2 forwards traffic that is destined for the default gateway by using the peer link. With the `peer-gateway` command, the peer link is not used for forwarding traffic destined for the default gateway, which is why this statement is incorrect.
- D. N7K-2 acts as the default gateway for all traffic. This is incorrect for the same reason as option B; both vPC switches can act as the default gateway when `peer-gateway` is configured.
Citations:
- vPC Peer-Gateway - Cisco, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/unicast/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_Unicast_Routing_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_Unicast_Routing_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_0111.html
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Question 7
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be connected to clear the HA NOT READY status?
- A. Layer 1-Layer 2 ports
- B. server chassis
- C. management ports
- D. network uplinks
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The recommended answer is B (server chassis).
Reasoning:
The exhibit shows a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect (FI) setup. The "HA NOT READY" status typically indicates that the High Availability (HA) configuration between the two FIs is not yet established. For HA to function correctly in a Cisco UCS environment, the Fabric Interconnects need to communicate and synchronize their configurations. This communication relies on the presence and status of the connected server chassis. The chassis provide a "heartbeat" signal to the FIs, confirming their presence and operational status. Without connected server chassis, the FIs cannot establish this heartbeat, resulting in the "HA NOT READY" status.
Why other options are incorrect:
* **A. Layer 1-Layer 2 ports:** While Layer 1/Layer 2 connectivity is essential for overall network function, it's not the primary factor determining HA status in this specific scenario. HA relies more on the higher-level communication and synchronization related to chassis and their resources.
* **C. Management ports:** Management ports are crucial for configuring and monitoring the FIs, but they are not directly responsible for the HA status in terms of chassis detection. The HA status regarding chassis dependencies relies on the data plane connectivity and heartbeat signals.
* **D. Network uplinks:** Network uplinks are used for connecting the FIs to the external network. While important for data traffic, they do not directly influence the HA status that depends on the presence and heartbeat of the server chassis.
- Citations:
- Cisco UCS High Availability White Paper, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/whitepaper_c11-732509.html
- Configuring Cisco UCS Manager for High Availability, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/chassis/install/ucs5108/UCS_5108_Installation/connect_FI.html
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Question 8
A small remote office is set to connect to the regional hub site via NSSA ASBR.
Which type of LSA is sent to the remote office OSPF area?
- A. type 7 LSA
- B. type 1 LSA
- C. type 5 LSA
- D. type 3 LSA
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
The correct answer is A (type 7 LSA).
Reasoning: In a Not-So-Stubby Area (NSSA), Autonomous System Boundary Routers (ASBRs) redistribute external routes into the NSSA. These external routes are advertised within the NSSA using type 7 LSAs. The question specifies that the remote office connects to the regional hub via an NSSA ASBR, therefore, the remote office OSPF area receives type 7 LSAs.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Type 1 LSAs: These are router LSAs, which describe the router's directly connected links within an area. They are fundamental to OSPF but not specific to external route distribution in NSSAs.
- Type 5 LSAs: These are external LSAs, which are flooded throughout the entire OSPF domain (except stub areas and NSSAs). Type 7 LSAs are translated into Type 5 LSAs by the ABR (Area Border Router) *exiting* the NSSA, not within the NSSA itself.
- Type 3 LSAs: These are summary LSAs, used by ABRs to advertise networks from one area to another. They don't relate to external routes injected by ASBRs.
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Question 9
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
The AI agrees with the suggested answer, which is option B.
The suggested answer correctly identifies the necessary configurations for establishing dual-site adjacency between OTV edge devices within the same site. The configuration requires a primary and a secondary adjacency server.
The key elements are:
- Primary Adjacency Server: Configured with 'otv-adjacency-server unicast-only'. This designates the device as the primary server and restricts adjacency formation to unicast communication.
- Secondary Adjacency Server: Configured with 'otv use-adjacency-server <IP address from primary join interface> unicast only'. This instructs the secondary server to use the primary server's join interface IP address for adjacency formation, again using unicast communication.
This setup ensures that even if one adjacency server fails, the other can maintain the OTV overlay, providing redundancy.
Reasoning for Choosing Option B:
The combination of 'otv-adjacency-server unicast-only' on the primary and 'otv use-adjacency-server <IP address from primary join interface> unicast only' on the secondary correctly establishes a primary/secondary relationship for OTV adjacency servers, forcing dual-site adjacency even when the edge devices are in the same site. The 'unicast-only' keyword is crucial for ensuring proper communication in this setup.
Reasoning for Excluding Other Options:
Options A, C, and D do not provide the complete and correct configuration needed for establishing dual-site adjacency with redundancy. They either lack the 'unicast-only' keyword, the 'otv use-adjacency-server' command on the secondary, or the reference to the primary's join interface IP address, which are all essential for the described scenario.
Citations:
- CCNA Data Center 200-155, page 178 (Note: Specific online URL not available, referencing a book)
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Question 10
Refer to the exhibit.
The STP priority of N7K-1 and N7K-2 are the lowest in the network.
Which statement describes STP on the vPC?
- A. N7K-1 and N7K-2 appear as a single STP root.
- B. N7K-1 appears as the STP root.
- C. N7K-1 preempts N7K-2 as the STP root.
- D. N7K-2 appears as the STP root.
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
The AI recommends answer A, "N7K-1 and N7K-2 appear as a single STP root."
Reasoning: With the peer-switch feature enabled in a vPC configuration, the two Nexus 7000 switches (N7K-1 and N7K-2) are designed to appear as a single STP root within the Layer 2 topology. This is achieved by having both switches participate in the STP process and using the vPC system MAC address as their bridge ID, thus presenting a consistent and unified view to the rest of the network. This behavior is documented in Cisco's vPC configuration guides and white papers. The question also mentions that the STP priority of both N7K-1 and N7K-2 are the lowest in the network, which mean they will be the root bridge.
Reasons for not choosing other answers:
- B: "N7K-1 appears as the STP root." - This is incorrect because with peer-switch enabled, both switches act as the root.
- C: "N7K-1 preempts N7K-2 as the STP root." - Preemption is not the default behavior in a vPC environment with peer-switch enabled. The switches operate as a single logical root.
- D: "N7K-2 appears as the STP root." - Similar to option B, this is incorrect because both switches act as the root.
The key to understanding this question lies in understanding the "peer-switch" command.
Citations:
- vPC - Virtual Port Channel, https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-515574.html
