[CompTIA] 220-1202 - A+ (Plus) Core 2 V15 Exam Dumps & Study Guide

Free [CompTIA] 220-1202 - A+ (Plus) Core 2 V15 Practice Questions Preview

• Question 1

  SIMULATION -
  
  You are configuring a home network for a customer. The customer has requested the ability to access a Windows PC remotely, and needs all chat and optional functions to work in their game console.
  
  
  INSTRUCTIONS -
  
  Use the drop-down menus to complete the network configuration for the customer. Each option may only be used once, and not all options will be used.
  Then, click the + sign to place each device in its appropriate location.
  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
  
  
  Wireless AP LAN -
  
  
  
  Firewall Screened Subnet -
  
  

  Correct Answer: See interactive view.

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested solution. To meet the requirements for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) and a gaming console with full functionality, specific port forwarding rules must be established within the firewall configuration and the Screened Subnet (formerly DMZ).

  Reason

  The RDP requirement necessitates forwarding TCP/UDP port 3389 to the internal Windows PC. For the game console, UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) or specific port triggers are required to ensure all chat and optional functions work, which often involves Open NAT settings. Placing the console in a Screened Subnet or configuring Port Forwarding for service-specific ports (like those used by Xbox Live or PlayStation Network) ensures bidirectional traffic is not blocked by the firewall's default deny rule.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because using Telnet (Port 23) or SSH (Port 22) would not allow for a native Windows Remote Desktop session.
  • Option B is incorrect because placing the PC in the Screened Subnet without specific port rules exposes the entire device to the public internet unnecessarily, violating the principle of least privilege.
  • Option C is incorrect because disabling the Firewall entirely would solve the connectivity issue but create a critical security vulnerability for the home network.

  Citations

  • https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/clients/remote-desktop-allow-access
  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/port-forwarding-explained

• Question 2

  A technician needs to provide remote support for a legacy Linux-based operating system from their Windows laptop. The solution needs to allow the technician to see what the user is doing and provide the ability to interact with the user's session. Which of the following remote access technologies would support the use case?

  • A. VPN
  • B. VNC
  • C. SSH
  • D. RDP

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  I agree with the community choice of Option B (VNC). VNC is uniquely suited for this scenario because it allows for screen sharing and session interaction across different operating systems (Windows to Linux), whereas other protocols either focus on the command line or create independent sessions.

  Reason

  VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is the correct choice because it uses the RFB (Remote Frame Buffer) protocol to transmit the actual desktop pixels to the technician. This allows the technician to see exactly what the user sees on their screen in real-time and interact with that same session, making it ideal for support on legacy Linux systems where a GUI is present.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because a VPN (Virtual Private Network) only establishes a secure tunnel into a network; it does not provide a graphical interface or the ability to view a user's screen.
  • Option C is incorrect because SSH (Secure Shell) is primarily a text-based terminal interface for remote command execution; while it can tunnel X11 traffic, it does not natively provide the 'over-the-shoulder' session sharing described.
  • Option D is incorrect because RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), while used for remote access, typically creates a new, independent session on Linux (via XRDP) or locks the local console, rather than allowing the technician to share the existing user's active session.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vnc-remote-desktop
  • https://docs.fedoraproject.org/en-US/fedora/latest/system-administrators-guide/infrastructure-services/VNC/

• Question 3

  A technician is attempting to join a workstation to a domain but is receiving an error message stating the domain cannot be found. However, the technician is able to ping the server and access the internet. Given the following information:
  
  Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

  • A. Change the DNS settings.
  • B. Assign a static IP address.
  • C. Configure a subnet mask.
  • D. Update the default gateway.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  I agree with the community choice of Option A. The workstation is using public DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1) which cannot resolve internal Active Directory domain names. Since ping and internet access work, basic network connectivity is confirmed, pointing to a name resolution failure.

  Reason

  Option A is correct because joining a domain requires the client to query SRV records on a DNS server that is authoritative for the domain (usually the Domain Controller). Public DNS servers like Google (8.8.8.8) or Cloudflare (1.1.1.1) do not have records for private internal domains, leading to the 'domain cannot be found' error.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option B is incorrect because Static IP addresses are not required for domain membership; workstations frequently use DHCP. Connectivity is already established as the tech can ping and browse the web.
  • Option C is incorrect because the technician can already communicate with other devices (pinging the server), indicating that the Subnet Mask is correctly configured for the local segment.
  • Option D is incorrect because the Default Gateway is functioning correctly, evidenced by the technician's ability to access the internet and reach external networks.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-dns

• Question 4

  A network technician notices that most of the company's network switches are now end-of-life and need to be upgraded. Which of the following should the technician do first?

  • A. Implement the change.
  • B. Approve the change.
  • C. Propose the change.
  • D. Schedule the change.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested answer C. In standard Change Management protocols (which are a core part of the CompTIA A+ curriculum), any significant infrastructure update must be formally requested or proposed as the initial step in the workflow.

  Reason

  Propose the change (Option C) is the correct first step because it involves creating a Change Request. This document outlines the scope, risk analysis, and plan for the upgrade. Formal documentation must exist before the Change Advisory Board (CAB) or management can review the necessity and impact of the work.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because implementing the change is one of the final steps in the lifecycle; doing so without prior approval or a backout plan violates best practices and could lead to unplanned downtime.
  • Option B is incorrect because approval is granted by management or a board, not the technician, and it can only occur after a proposal has been submitted.
  • Option D is incorrect because scheduling occurs only after the change has been vetted and approved to ensure it does not conflict with critical business operations.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-change-management
  • https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/windows/manage/change-management-process

• Question 5

  MFA for a custom web application on a user's smartphone is no longer working. The last time the user remembered it working was before taking a vacation to another country. Which of the following should the technician do first?

  • A. Verify the date and time settings.
  • B. Apply mobile OS patches.
  • C. Uninstall and reinstall the application.
  • D. Escalate to the website developer.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  I agree with the selected answer Option A. The most common cause for MFA failure after international travel is a time synchronization mismatch, which prevents TOTP algorithms from generating valid codes.

  Reason

  Option A is correct because Time-based One-Time Passwords (TOTP) rely on the device's clock being perfectly synchronized with the server. Traveling to another country often involves manual or automatic time zone changes; if the device's time drifts or is set incorrectly, the generated code will not match the server's expected value, causing the MFA to fail.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option B is incorrect because while keeping a device updated is a best practice, a lack of OS patches would not suddenly cause MFA to fail specifically following a trip abroad.
  • Option C is incorrect because reinstalling the application is a destructive troubleshooting step that should only be performed after verifying basic configuration settings like Date and Time.
  • Option D is incorrect because escalating to a developer is premature before the technician has performed basic client-side troubleshooting to rule out user-environment issues.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multi-factor-authentication
  • https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/authentication/troubleshoot-code-verification-issues

• Question 6

  Which of the following is found in an MSDS sheet for a battery backup?

  • A. Installation instructions
  • B. Emergency procedures
  • C. Configuration steps
  • D. Voltage specifications

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested answer B. A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), now more commonly referred to as a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), is a document designed to provide workers and emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with a particular substance in a safe manner.

  Reason

  Emergency procedures are a core component of an MSDS/SDS. This includes First-Aid Measures (Section 4), Fire-Fighting Measures (Section 5), and Accidental Release Measures (Section 6). For a battery backup (UPS), which contains hazardous chemicals like lead-acid or lithium-ion, these procedures are vital for handling leaks, fires, or skin contact.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because installation instructions are found in the user manual or setup guide, not a safety document.
  • Option C is incorrect because configuration steps (such as software setup or network settings) are part of the user guide or technical documentation.
  • Option D is incorrect because while some physical properties are listed in an SDS, voltage specifications are electrical ratings found on the manufacturer spec sheet or regulatory label rather than a chemical safety document.

  Citations

  • https://www.osha.gov/sites/default/files/publications/OSHA3514.pdf
  • https://library.comptia.org/comptia-a-220-1102-study-guide/safety-procedures

• Question 7

  The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer. Which of the following should a technician do first?

  • A. Run data recovery tools on the disk.
  • B. Partition the disk using the GPT format.
  • C. Check boot options.
  • D. Switch from UEFI to BIOS.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  I agree with the community and the suggested answer of Option C. The OS Not Found error often occurs when a computer attempts to boot from a non-bootable device, such as a USB drive, which the question explicitly mentions is plugged in.

  Reason

  Option C is correct because checking the boot options or boot order in the UEFI/BIOS is the least invasive and most logical first step. If the USB drive is prioritized over the internal hard drive, the system will fail to find an operating system on that drive and report the error. Removing the drive or changing the order resolves this without data loss.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because running data recovery tools is a reactive step taken after a hardware failure is confirmed; it is premature and unnecessary before checking the boot configuration.
  • Option B is incorrect because partitioning a disk will destroy existing data; the computer was previously working, so the partition table is likely intact.
  • Option D is incorrect because switching from UEFI to BIOS (Legacy) would likely cause more boot issues if the OS was installed under the UEFI standard, and it does not address the presence of the USB drive.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/troubleshooting-hard-drive-problems
  • https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-uefi-mode-or-legacy-bios-mode

• Question 8

  A security administrator teaches all of an organization's staff members to use BitLocker To Go. Which of the following best describes the reason for this training?

  • A. To ensure that all removable media is password protected in case of loss or theft
  • B. To enable Secure Boot and a BIOS-level password to prevent configuration changes
  • C. To enforce VPN connectivity to be encrypted by hardware modules
  • D. To configure all laptops to use the TPM as an encryption factor for hard drives

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested answer A. BitLocker To Go is a specific feature of Windows Full Volume Encryption designed specifically for removable data drives, such as USB flash drives and external hard disks, rather than internal system drives.

  Reason

  Option A is correct because BitLocker To Go allows users to encrypt removable drives and requires a password (or smart card) to unlock the data. This protects the information stored on the media if the device is lost or stolen, as the data remains encrypted and inaccessible without the proper credentials.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option B is incorrect because Secure Boot and BIOS/UEFI passwords are firmware-level security features used to protect the boot process and prevent unauthorized hardware configuration changes, which is unrelated to removable media encryption.
  • Option C is incorrect because VPN (Virtual Private Network) connectivity is used for securing data in transit over a network, and while it may use hardware modules like a TPM, it is not the function of BitLocker To Go.
  • Option D is incorrect because configuring internal hard drives to use a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is a function of standard BitLocker (Drive Encryption), not the 'To Go' version which targets external, removable storage.

  Citations

  • https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-to-go-faq

• Question 9

  Which of the following is used to detect and record access to restricted areas?

  • A. Bollards
  • B. Video surveillance
  • C. Badge readers
  • D. Fence

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested answer Option B. While Badge readers log access events, the primary purpose of Video surveillance in security frameworks is to both detect (via motion or visual monitoring) and record (via footage) all activity within restricted areas, including unauthorized access attempts or tailgating that badge readers might miss.

  Reason

  Video surveillance (CCTV) is specifically designed to detect movement or presence in a restricted area and record a visual log of the event. This provides a high-fidelity audit trail that can be used for forensic analysis or real-time response, covering the entire scope of the question's requirements.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because Bollards are physical barriers designed to prevent vehicle-based ramming attacks; they do not detect or record information.
  • Option C is incorrect because while Badge readers log entries, they are primarily Access Control mechanisms rather than detection systems; they cannot detect or record an individual who enters without a badge (tailgating).
  • Option D is incorrect because a Fence is a passive deterrent and physical barrier that lacks inherent detection or recording capabilities without integrated sensors.

  Citations

  • https://www.comptia.org/blog/comptia-a-security-skills
  • https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-2-220-1102-study-guide

• Question 10

  An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches. Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?

  • A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring.
  • B. The OS will be considered end of life.
  • C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version.
  • D. A new version of the OS will be released soon.

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  I agree with the suggested answer B. In the context of the CompTIA A+ objectives, the cessation of security updates and patches is the definitive characteristic of software reaching its End of Life (EOL).

  Reason

  Option B is correct because End of Life (EOL) refers to the point in a product's life cycle when a vendor stops providing support, including critical security patches and technical assistance. This creates a significant security risk, necessitating a migration to a supported version.

  Why the other options are not as suitable

  • Option A is incorrect because manufacturer support for hardware is separate from OS security updates; a manufacturer might stop supporting a physical laptop while the OS installed on it continues to receive updates from the software developer.
  • Option C is incorrect because removing a specific feature or software suite in a future version does not imply that the current version will stop receiving security patches.
  • Option D is incorrect because the release of a new OS version usually marks the start of a transition period where the older version remains supported for several years before reaching EOL status.

  Citations

  • https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/end-of-support
  • https://csrc.nist.gov/glossary/term/end_of_life