[ISC2] CISSP - Info Systems Security Professional Exam Dumps & Study Guide
The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is widely regarded as the gold standard of cybersecurity certifications. It is an globally recognized credential that validates an individual's deep technical and managerial knowledge and experience to effectively design, engineer, and manage the overall security posture of an organization. As cyber threats become more sophisticated and prevalent, the role of a CISSP-certified professional is more critical than ever. This certification, managed by (ISC)2, is a powerful differentiator in the cybersecurity job market, demonstrating a high level of expertise and a commitment to professional ethics.
Overview of the Exam
The CISSP exam is a comprehensive assessment that covers eight key domains within the (ISC)2 Common Body of Knowledge (CBK). The exam uses Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT) for all English exams, which means the number of items and the testing time varies depending on the candidate's performance. The exam covers a broad spectrum of security topics, ensuring that candidates have a holistic understanding of the entire cybersecurity landscape. From risk management to software development security, the CISSP is designed to test your ability to apply security principles across a wide variety of scenarios and environments.
Target Audience
The CISSP is intended for experienced security practitioners, managers, and executives who are looking to advance their careers and prove their expertise. To qualify for the CISSP, candidates must have at least five years of cumulative, paid work experience in two or more of the eight domains of the CISSP CBK. This includes roles such as:
1. Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs)
2. IT Directors/Managers
3. Security Systems Engineers
4. Security Analysts
5. Security Managers
6. Security Auditors
7. Security Architects
8. Network Architects
Key Topics Covered
The CISSP CBK is organized into eight domains, which are:
1. Security and Risk Management (15%): Security governance, compliance, and legal and regulatory issues.
2. Asset Security (10%): Identifying and classifying information and assets.
3. Security Architecture and Engineering (13%): Engineering processes using secure design principles.
4. Communication and Network Security (13%): Securing network components and communication channels.
5. Identity and Access Management (IAM) (13%): Controlling access and managing identities.
6. Security Assessment and Testing (12%): Designing and performing security audits and tests.
7. Security Operations (13%): Managing foundational security operations, including incident response and disaster recovery.
8. Software Development Security (11%): Understanding and applying security throughout the software development life cycle (SDLC).
Benefits of Getting Certified
Earning the CISSP certification provides numerous benefits. It is a highly respected credential that can lead to significant career advancement and higher salary potential. Many top organizations require the CISSP for senior security positions, making it an essential credential for any aspiring security leader. Furthermore, being a CISSP connects you to a global network of security professionals, providing access to exclusive resources and continuing education opportunities. It demonstrates your dedication to the field and your commitment to maintaining the highest standards of professional excellence.
Why NotJustExam.com is Your Best Prep Resource
Passing the CISSP exam requires a deep understanding of complex security concepts and the ability to apply them in a managerial context. NotJustExam.com is the best resource to help you achieve this. Our platform offers an extensive bank of practice questions designed to mirror the actual exam’s difficulty and format.
What sets NotJustExam.com apart is our focus on interactive logic and accurate explanations. We don’t just provide answers; we provide the reasoning behind the correct choices. Every question in our bank includes an in-depth explanation that helps you understand the underlying security principles. This approach ensures that you are truly learning the material and developing the critical thinking skills needed to pass the CISSP exam. With our regularly updated content and realistic practice environments, you can approach your CISSP exam with the confidence that comes from thorough preparation. Start your journey to becoming a CISSP today with NotJustExam.com!
Free [ISC2] CISSP - Info Systems Security Professional Practice Questions Preview
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Question 1
Physical assets defined in an organization's business impact analysis (BIA) could include which of the following?
- A. Personal belongings of organizational staff members
- B. Disaster recovery (DR) line-item revenues
- C. Cloud-based applications
- D. Supplies kept off-site a remote facility
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer.
The correct answer is D. Supplies kept off-site a remote facility.
Reasoning: A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies an organization's essential functions and the resources required to support them. Physical assets are tangible items crucial for business operations. Supplies stored off-site are considered physical assets and are essential for business operations, making them a key component in a BIA.
- Why A is incorrect: Personal belongings of organizational staff members are not typically considered organizational assets in a BIA.
- Why B is incorrect: Disaster recovery (DR) line-item revenues are financial aspects, not physical assets.
- Why C is incorrect: Cloud-based applications are intangible assets/services. While important for business continuity, they don't fall under the category of physical assets.
Therefore, the most appropriate answer is D, as it directly relates to a tangible, physical resource vital for business operations and considered in a BIA.
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Question 2
When assessing the audit capability of an application, which of the following activities is MOST important?
- A. Identify procedures to investigate suspicious activity.
- B. Determine if audit records contain sufficient information.
- C. Verify if sufficient storage is allocated for audit records.
- D. Review security plan for actions to be taken in the event of audit failure.
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer, which is B. Determine if audit records contain sufficient information.
Reasoning:
When assessing the audit capability of an application, the most important activity is to determine if the audit records contain sufficient information. This is because the primary purpose of auditing is to provide a record of events that can be used to:
- Detect security incidents
- Investigate suspicious activity
- Perform forensic analysis
- Ensure compliance with regulations
If the audit records do not contain sufficient information, then they cannot be used for these purposes, rendering the audit capability ineffective. Sufficient information includes details such as timestamps, user IDs, event types, source and destination addresses, and data values. This level of detail allows for a comprehensive understanding of the events that have occurred and can be crucial in identifying and responding to security threats.
Why other options are less suitable:
- A. Identify procedures to investigate suspicious activity: While important, this relies on the existence of useful audit data. Without sufficient information in the logs, investigations are hampered.
- C. Verify if sufficient storage is allocated for audit records: While adequate storage is necessary, it's useless if the logs themselves lack the necessary information. You could have ample storage space, but if the audit records are not detailed enough, they are of little value.
- D. Review security plan for actions to be taken in the event of audit failure: This is a part of incident response and is important, but again, it depends on having useful audit data in the first place.
Therefore, ensuring that the audit records contain sufficient information is the most crucial aspect of assessing an application's audit capability.
Citations:
- Comprehensive Guide to Audit Trails: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/specialpublications/nist.sp.800-92.pdf
- Importance of Logging: https://www.trendmicro.com/vinfo/us/security-news/it-and-enterprise-security/the-importance-of-logging-everything
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Question 3
An organization would like to implement an authorization mechanism that would simplify the assignment of various system access permissions for many users with similar job responsibilities. Which type of authorization mechanism would be the BEST choice for the organization to implement?
- A. Role-based access control (RBAC)
- B. Discretionary access control (DAC)
- C. Content-dependent Access Control
- D. Rule-based Access Control
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer, which is A. Role-based access control (RBAC).
Reasoning:
The question highlights the need to simplify the assignment of system access permissions for many users with similar job responsibilities. RBAC directly addresses this requirement by assigning permissions based on roles rather than individual users. This significantly reduces administrative overhead when managing access rights for large groups of users with common tasks.
RBAC is widely recognized as the most practical and efficient authorization mechanism for managing user access in organizations with structured roles and responsibilities. It simplifies administration, reduces the risk of errors, and enhances security by ensuring users only have the necessary privileges to perform their job functions.
Why other options are less suitable:
- B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC): DAC places access control decisions in the hands of individual data owners. This is less suitable for organizations needing centralized, consistent access management across many users with similar roles. DAC can lead to inconsistent access policies and increased administrative burden.
- C. Content-dependent Access Control: Content-dependent access control focuses on the content of the data being accessed, rather than the user's role. While useful in certain scenarios, it doesn't address the core requirement of simplifying permission assignment for users with similar job responsibilities. It is generally more complex to implement and manage than RBAC.
- D. Rule-based Access Control: Rule-based access control uses predefined rules to determine access. While potentially useful, it's often more complex to configure and maintain than RBAC, especially when dealing with a large number of users and roles. RBAC provides a more straightforward and scalable approach for the scenario described in the question.
Therefore, RBAC is the best choice for the organization to implement in this scenario because it is the most efficient and manageable way to assign permissions to users with similar job responsibilities.
Citations:
- Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), https://csrc.nist.gov/glossary/term/role-based_access_control
- Understanding Access Control Models: DAC, MAC, and RBAC, https://www.varonis.com/blog/access-control-models
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Question 4
What is the PRIMARY reason for criminal law being difficult to enforce when dealing with cybercrime?
- A. Jurisdiction is hard to define.
- B. Law enforcement agencies are understaffed.
- C. Extradition treaties are rarely enforced.
- D. Numerous language barriers exist.
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer, A. Jurisdiction is hard to define.
Reasoning: Cybercrime's borderless nature is the fundamental challenge. It's often difficult to pinpoint where the crime occurred and which laws apply, complicating investigations and prosecutions.
- Option A: Jurisdiction is hard to define. This is the most significant hurdle. Cybercrimes frequently involve perpetrators, victims, and servers in different countries, making it challenging to establish legal jurisdiction.
- Option B: Law enforcement agencies are understaffed. While understaffing is a problem for law enforcement in general, it is not the primary reason specific to cybercrime enforcement difficulties. The jurisdictional issues would persist even with adequate staffing.
- Option C: Extradition treaties are rarely enforced. Extradition is a consequence of jurisdictional issues. If jurisdiction cannot be clearly established, extradition becomes irrelevant. Moreover, extradition treaties exist and are enforced, although not always successfully. This is not the primary reason.
- Option D: Numerous language barriers exist. Language barriers are a challenge, but they can be overcome with translation services and international cooperation. The primary impediment remains the difficulty in establishing legal jurisdiction over cybercrimes that transcend national boundaries.
Therefore, while understaffing, extradition difficulties, and language barriers are contributing factors, the complexities of jurisdiction in a borderless online world make option A the PRIMARY reason for the difficulties in enforcing criminal law against cybercrime.
Citations:
- Cybercrime, Wikipedia, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cybercrime
- Challenges in Cybercrime Investigation and Digital Forensics, researchgate, https://www.researchgate.net/publication/344048293_Challenges_in_Cybercrime_Investigation_and_Digital_Forensics
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Question 5
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) provides users with a higher level of assurance that their data will remain protected by using which protocol?
- A. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
- B. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
- C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
- D. Secure Shell (SSH)
Correct Answer:
A
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer.
A. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is the correct answer. WPA2 uses EAP for authentication, which provides a higher level of assurance for data protection. EAP supports various authentication methods, enhancing security.
The other options are incorrect because:
- IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that secures Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. It's primarily used for VPNs, not Wi-Fi authentication.
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It's been superseded by TLS and is primarily used for securing web traffic (HTTPS), not Wi-Fi authentication.
- SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol for operating network services securely over an unsecured network. It's mainly used for remote server administration, not Wi-Fi authentication.
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Question 6
Which part of an operating system (OS) is responsible for providing security interfaces among the hardware, OS, and other parts of the computing system?
- A. Reference monitor
- B. Trusted Computing Base (TCB)
- C. Time separation
- D. Security kernel
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer. The correct answer is D. Security kernel.
Reasoning: The security kernel is the core of a secure operating system that enforces security policies and provides a secure interface between hardware, the OS, and other system components. It's the actual implementation of the reference monitor concept within the Trusted Computing Base (TCB). The security kernel mediates all access requests to system resources, ensuring that only authorized subjects can access permitted objects.
Reasons for not choosing other options:
- A. Reference monitor: The reference monitor is a conceptual security mechanism. It is an abstract design concept for controlling access to objects, but it's not a concrete part of the OS like the security kernel. The Security Kernel is the implementation of the Reference Monitor.
- B. Trusted Computing Base (TCB): The TCB is the entire architecture that contains all the security-relevant components of a system, including hardware, software, and firmware. It defines the scope of security responsibilities but isn't specifically the part providing security interfaces. The security kernel resides *within* the TCB.
- C. Time separation: Time separation is a security mechanism that isolates processes by ensuring they operate at different times, preventing interference. This is not the component responsible for providing security interfaces between the hardware, OS, and other parts of the computing system.
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Question 7
What process facilitates the balance of operational and economic costs of protective measures with gains in mission capability?
- A. Performance testing
- B. Risk assessment
- C. Security audit
- D. Risk management
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer. The correct answer is D. Risk management.
Reasoning: Risk management is the overarching process that encompasses the identification, assessment, and response to risks. A key objective of risk management is to balance the cost of implementing security controls with the potential impact of a risk event and the gains in mission capability achieved through risk mitigation. This involves making informed decisions about which risks to accept, mitigate, transfer, or avoid, considering both operational and economic factors.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. Performance testing: Performance testing focuses on evaluating the speed, stability, and scalability of a system. While it's important for overall IT operations, it doesn't directly address the balance between security costs and mission capability gains.
- B. Risk assessment: Risk assessment is a component of risk management, but it's primarily concerned with identifying and analyzing risks. It doesn't inherently involve the decision-making process of balancing costs and benefits.
- C. Security audit: A security audit is a systematic evaluation of an organization's security posture. It can identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses, but it doesn't directly address the economic considerations of protective measures or the impact on mission capability.
Citations:
- NIST Risk Management Framework, https://csrc.nist.gov/Projects/risk-management
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Question 8
Clothing retailer employees are provisioned with user accounts that provide access to resources at partner businesses. All partner businesses use common identity and access management (IAM) protocols and differing technologies. Under the Extended Identity principle, what is the process flow between partner businesses to allow this IAM action?
- A. Clothing retailer acts as User Self Service, confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to services.
- B. Clothing retailer acts as identity provider (IdP), confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to services.
- C. Clothing retailer acts as Service Provider, confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as an identity provider (IdP) and allows access to resources.
- D. Clothing retailer acts as Access Control Provider, confirms access of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to resources.
Correct Answer:
B
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer.
The correct answer is B. Clothing retailer acts as identity provider (IdP), confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service Provider and allows access to services.
Reasoning:
- The question states that the clothing retailer provisions user accounts that provide access to resources at partner businesses. This strongly suggests that the clothing retailer is acting as the Identity Provider (IdP).
- Under the Extended Identity principle, an IdP confirms the identity of a user and provides credentials or assertions to Service Providers (SPs) to allow access to resources.
- Partner businesses, in this scenario, are acting as Service Providers (SPs) because they are relying on the clothing retailer (IdP) to authenticate users before granting access to their resources.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. Clothing retailer acts as User Self Service: While user self-service might be part of the overall IAM system, it doesn't define the core interaction between the clothing retailer and partner businesses in the context of extended identity.
- C. Clothing retailer acts as Service Provider: This is incorrect because the clothing retailer is provisioning accounts, not relying on partner businesses for authentication.
- D. Clothing retailer acts as Access Control Provider: Access Control Provider is a broad term, but in this specific scenario, the clothing retailer's role is more specifically that of an Identity Provider, handling authentication and providing credentials.
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Question 9
Which of the following statements BEST describes least privilege principle in a cloud environment?
- A. A single cloud administrator is configured to access core functions.
- B. Internet traffic is inspected for all incoming and outgoing packets.
- C. Routing configurations are regularly updated with the latest routes.
- D. Network segments remain private if unneeded to access the internet.
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
The suggested answer, D, is the correct answer.
Reasoning: The principle of least privilege dictates that a user or system should only have the minimum necessary access rights to perform its function. In a cloud environment, this translates to limiting network access. If a network segment doesn't need internet access, it should remain private. This directly applies the principle of granting only the necessary permissions.
Reasons for not choosing other answers:
- A: A single cloud administrator might seem like a way to control access, but it doesn't inherently enforce least privilege. The administrator could still have excessive permissions. This also creates a single point of failure.
- B: While inspecting internet traffic is a good security practice, it's related to monitoring and intrusion detection, not least privilege.
- C: Regularly updating routing configurations is important for network security and availability but does not directly implement the principle of least privilege.
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Question 10
An organization has been collecting a large amount of redundant and unusable data and filling up the storage area network (SAN). Management has requested the identification of a solution that will address ongoing storage problems. Which is the BEST technical solution?
- A. Compression
- B. Caching
- C. Replication
- D. Deduplication
Correct Answer:
D
Explanation:
I agree with the suggested answer, which is D, Deduplication.
Reasoning: The question specifically mentions "redundant and unusable data." Deduplication is a data compression technique that eliminates duplicate copies of repeating data. In the process of deduplication, unique chunks of data are identified and stored during a process of analysis. As the analysis continues, other chunks are compared to the stored copy and whenever a match occurs, the redundant chunk is replaced with a small reference that points to the stored chunk. Given the scenario, deduplication directly addresses the problem of redundant data filling up the storage area network (SAN).
Reasons for not choosing the other options:
- A. Compression: While compression reduces the size of data, it doesn't eliminate redundant copies. It reduces the overall size but does not identify and remove duplication.
- B. Caching: Caching is a technique used to improve performance by storing frequently accessed data in a faster storage tier. It does not address the issue of redundant data filling up the SAN.
- C. Replication: Replication creates multiple copies of data, which exacerbates the storage problem by increasing the amount of data stored.
Deduplication is the best technical solution in this scenario as it directly targets and eliminates redundant data, optimizing storage utilization.
Citations:
- Data deduplication, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_deduplication