[Oracle] Oracle - 1z0-083 Exam Dumps & Study Guide

Free [Oracle] Oracle - 1z0-083 Practice Questions Preview

• Question 1

  Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)
  

  • A. All metrics are instance related.
  • B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
  • C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.
  • D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
  • E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.
  • F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

  Correct Answer: BCE

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of BCE.
  
  Reasoning:
  

  • B is correct because when a stateful alert is cleared, its record is moved from DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY. This is how the alert history is maintained and tracked.
  • C is correct because space usage management alerts are generally designed to be automatically cleared when the underlying condition (e.g., tablespace being full) is resolved. Once the space is freed up, the alert is automatically cleared by the system.
  • E is correct because metrics, in the context of database monitoring and management, are indeed statistical counts that provide quantitative data about various aspects of the system's performance and resource utilization.

  
  Reasons for Incorrect Answers:
  

  • A is incorrect because while many metrics are instance-related, not all of them are. Some metrics can be related to the database as a whole, the operating system, or other components.
  • D is incorrect because while SMON (System Monitor) is involved in various background tasks, alerts are generated based on thresholds defined in the monitoring system and not solely by SMON reaching a specific percentage like 97%.
  • F is incorrect because setting STATISTICS_LEVEL to TYPICAL is generally sufficient for generating alerts. Setting it to ALL provides more detailed statistics but is not a strict requirement for alert generation.

  Citations:

  • Oracle Database Documentation on Alert History, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/sqlrf/DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.html
  • Oracle Database Concepts Guide on Statistics Levels, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/cncpt/monitoring-and-managing-performance.html#GUID-59552A2E-958B-464C-B866-D2B314A681C4

• Question 2

  While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.
  FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
  Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
  • B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
  • C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
  • D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
  • E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.

  Correct Answer: DE

  Explanation:

  Based on the question and discussion, the AI also recommends options D and E as the correct answers.
  
  The suggested answer (D and E) is correct.
  
  Reasoning:
  

  • D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O: Asynchronous I/O allows the database server to continue processing other tasks while waiting for disk I/O operations to complete. This can significantly improve performance during the read phase of the backup, especially if the disk I/O is a bottleneck.
  • E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing: RMAN multiplexing involves reading multiple input files concurrently and writing them to a single backup piece. Increasing the multiplexing level allows RMAN to fill tape buffers faster, which makes it more likely that buffers are sent to the media manager quickly enough to maintain streaming. This reduces the likelihood of the backup process being stalled due to slow I/O.

  
  Reasons for not choosing the other answers:
  

  • A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers: While increasing tape I/O buffer size can help with write performance, it's less likely to address a bottleneck in the read phase of the RMAN backup. Additionally, the discussion pointed out that SBT buffer can't help on the read phase.
  • B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database: Disabling FORCE LOGGING can reduce the amount of redo log generation, but it does not directly improve read performance during the backup process. FORCE LOGGING is enabled to ensure recoverability, and disabling it is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. It also does not directly affect the read phase of an RMAN backup.
  • C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache: The database buffer cache is primarily used for caching data blocks accessed by SQL queries. RMAN backups read data directly from disk and do not rely on the buffer cache. Thus, increasing the buffer cache size will not improve RMAN backup read performance.

  
  Citations:

  • Oracle Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/rcmrf/index.html

• Question 3

  For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.
  • B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB
  • C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB
  • D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB
  • E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
  • F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

  Correct Answer: BD

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of B and D.
  
  Reasoning:
  

  • Option B is correct because the `USER_TABLESPACES` clause with the `NONE` option excludes all tablespaces except `SYSTEM`, `SYSAUX`, and `TEMP` when plugging in a PDB. This is validated in the Oracle documentation (CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE), which explicitly mentions the use of `USER_TABLESPACES=NONE`.
  • Option D is correct because the `USER_TABLESPACES` clause is essential when migrating a non-CDB database to a PDB. It allows specifying which user tablespaces should be included in the plugged-in PDB. This is a key step to control the content of the new PDB. The Oracle documentation also explain this process.

  
  Reasons for excluding other options:
  

  • Option A is incorrect because while you can specify default tablespaces during PDB creation or cloning, this isn't the primary function of the `USER_TABLESPACES` clause. It's more focused on including/excluding tablespaces during plug-in operations.
  • Option C is incorrect because relocating a PDB typically involves moving all relevant tablespaces. The `USER_TABLESPACES` clause is used for specifying which tablespaces to *include* during plug-in or migration operations, not for selectively including tablespaces during relocation within the same CDB.
  • Option E is incorrect because excluding the temp tablespace with the USER_TABLESPACES clause is not a feature. You have to always exclude the temp tablespace because you don't want to plug it in.
  • Option F is incorrect because the `USER_TABLESPACES` clause is not applicable when creating a PDB from the CDB seed. The CDB seed already has a predefined set of tablespaces.

  Citations:
  

  • CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/sqlrf/CREATE-PLUGGABLE-DATABASE.html

• Question 4

  Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)
  

  • A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
  • B. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
  • C. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
  • D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
  • E. FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
  • F. FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

  Correct Answer: BDF

  Explanation:

  Based on the analysis and credible sources, the AI suggests a different answer than the suggested answer (BDF). The AI suggests ABF as the correct answer.
  
  Reasoning:
  

  • A is correct: FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time. Flashback Transaction Query uses UNDO data to reconstruct the state of the data at different points in time.
  • B is correct: FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON. This is because Flashback Drop restores a table from the recycle bin.
  • F is correct: FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time. Flashback Version Query relies on UNDO data to provide the different versions of the rows.

  
  Reasons for Incorrect Answers:
  

  • C is incorrect: FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON. Flashback Version Query uses UNDO, not the recycle bin.
  • D is incorrect: FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked. Flashback Data Archive (FDA) stores historical data in a separate flashback archive tablespace, not in undo.
  • E is incorrect: FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time. FLASHBACK drop recovers the table from the RECYCLEBIN, which doesn't use UNDO in the same way as other flashback operations.

  Citations:

  • Flashback Technology, https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e41502/adfns_flashback.htm
  • Understanding Flashback Operations, https://www.oracle-dba-online.com/sql/flashback.htm
  • Using Flashback Drop, https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/schemaob.htm#i1006448

• Question 5

  Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxx-preinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)
  

  • A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met
  • B. creating the oracle OS user
  • C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group
  • D. creating the oraInventory (oinstall) group
  • E. creating the grid OS user
  • F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access

  Correct Answer: BCD

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of BCD.
  
  The Oracle Preinstallation RPM performs several key actions to prepare the operating system for Oracle Grid Infrastructure or Oracle Database installations, it includes creating necessary OS users and groups, and performing configuration for shared storage.
  
  Here's a breakdown of why B, C, and D are correct:

  • B: creating the oracle OS user - The preinstall RPM automatically creates the `oracle` user, which is the standard user for Oracle software installations.
  • C: creating the OSDBA (dba) group - The RPM creates the `dba` group, which is essential for granting OS-level privileges to database administrators.
  • D: creating the oraInventory (oinstall) group - The `oinstall` group is created by the RPM and is used to manage the Oracle Inventory, which tracks all Oracle software installations on the system.

  Options A, E, and F are incorrect:

  • A: performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met - While pre-installation checks are performed, this is more of a prerequisite check rather than an action performed *by* the preinstall RPM itself during its core function.
  • E: creating the grid OS user - The preinstall RPM creates the `oracle` user, not a specifically named `grid` user. The Grid Infrastructure installation process might involve creating a separate user, but the preinstall RPM's role is focused on the `oracle` user.
  • F: configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access - Configuring ASM is beyond the scope of the preinstall RPM, which primarily focuses on user and group creation, and basic OS parameter setup.

  In summary, the oracle-database-server-xxxx-preinstall RPM automates the creation of the `oracle` user, the `dba` group, and the `oinstall` group, which are essential steps in preparing the OS for Oracle software.

  Citations:

  • Oracle Linux: Oracle Preinstallation RPM, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/ladbi/preparing-installation.html#GUID-E1171AD2-33A1-4484-A9A2-70EF8D5B4052

• Question 6

  Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.
  • B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.
  • C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.
  • D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.
  • E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.
  • F. They can be created only in an application root.

  Correct Answer: DF

  Explanation:

  Based on the analysis of the question and discussion, the AI recommends the answer DF.
  
  Reasoning for choosing D and F:
  

  • D is correct because common objects, by definition, can exist both in the CDB$ROOT and in application roots.
  • F is correct because common objects are created in the application root.

  
  Reasoning for not choosing other options:
  

  • A is incorrect because common objects are not created *only* in CDB$ROOT; they are created in application roots as well.
  • B is incorrect because it incorrectly limits the scope of metadata linking.
  • C is incorrect because it is not the only place where common objects exist.
  • E is incorrect because common objects are not extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.

  In summary, the AI agrees with the suggested answer DF because it aligns with the core concepts of common object creation and existence within a multitenant container database (CDB) environment.

  
  Citations:

  • Oracle Database Documentation, https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/cncpt/introduction-to-the-multitenant-architecture.html#GUID-7250F373-435B-493E-B767-408A201C04BA

• Question 7

  Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
  • B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
  • C. A DBA can run it manually.
  • D. Results are written to the alert log.
  • E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.

  Correct Answer: BC

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer.
  The suggested answer is BC.
  Reasoning:
  ADDM (Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor) is a self-diagnostic tool within Oracle databases that automatically analyzes performance and identifies potential issues.
  

  • B is correct: ADDM runs automatically after each AWR (Automatic Workload Repository) snapshot. This is a fundamental aspect of its operation, ensuring regular performance analysis.
  • C is correct: DBAs can manually run ADDM to analyze specific time periods or investigate particular performance concerns. This provides flexibility and control over the diagnostic process.

  Reasons for Incorrect Answers:
  

  • A is incorrect: ADDM analyzes the time period between two AWR snapshots, not a fixed 12-hour period. The interval between snapshots is configurable.
  • D is incorrect: ADDM results are stored within the AWR repository, not the alert log. The alert log is primarily for critical errors and events.
  • E is incorrect: Similar to A, ADDM analyzes the time between snapshots, not a fixed "last day of activity."

  Citations:
  

  • Oracle Documentation on ADDM, https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40402/addm.htm#PFGRF0200

• Question 8

  Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
  • B. Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.
  • C. Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.
  • D. Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
  • E. Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.

  Correct Answer: BC

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of BC.
  
  Reasoning for choosing B and C:
  

  • B: Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history. This is true because stateless alerts, unlike stateful alerts, don't have an inherent state that automatically clears them. Therefore, they must be manually purged.
  • C: Stateless alerts can be cleared manually. This is also true, as stateless alerts require manual intervention to be cleared. They do not clear automatically based on a threshold or event.

  
  Reasons for rejecting other options:
  

  • A: Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem. This is incorrect. Stateful alerts are typically generated automatically by the database server based on predefined thresholds. The DBA's role is more about setting up these thresholds, acknowledging, and resolving the underlying issues that triggered the alert.
  • D: Stateless alerts are automatically cleared. This statement is false. Stateless alerts require manual intervention for clearing.
  • E: Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history. This is not always true. While some systems might automatically purge stateful alerts after a certain period, it's not a universal characteristic. Often, they are retained for historical analysis and require manual purging or archiving.

  Citations:
  

  • Oracle Documentation on Alerting, (No direct URL, as specific documentation pages vary significantly by Oracle version, but search for "Oracle alerting concepts" or "stateful vs stateless alerts Oracle")

• Question 9

  Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)
  

  • A. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
  • B. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files
  • C. the list of a disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup
  • D. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
  • E. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
  • F. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance

  Correct Answer: ABE

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of ABE.
  Suggested Answer: ABE
  Reasoning for choosing ABE:

  • A: The Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files is indeed located using environment variables such as $ORACLE_HOME and $ORACLE_BASE. These variables define the base directory for Oracle software and the location of specific components, respectively.
  • B: The location of Oracle Net Services configuration files is determined by the $TNS_ADMIN environment variable. If this variable is not set, the default location is usually $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin, but the environment variable takes precedence.
  • E: The temporary disk space used by the Oracle Installer during installation is often specified using the TMP and TEMP environment variables. The installer uses these variables to locate directories for storing temporary files during the installation process.

  Reasons for not choosing CDF:

  • C: The list of disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup is specified using the ASM_DISKGROUPS initialization parameter in the SPFILE, not environment variables.
  • D: Default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces are typically set using the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST initialization parameter, not environment variables.
  • F: The maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance is controlled by the DB_FILES initialization parameter within the database's SPFILE, and not through environment variables.

  • Title: Oracle Database Environment Variables https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/install.102/b15658/app_env.htm
  • Title: Understanding Oracle Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) https://www.oracle-dba.com/t_understanding_oracle_optimal_flexible_architecture_ofa.htm
  • Title: Configuring Oracle Net Services https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/network.112/e10835/tnsadmin.htm#NETAG290

• Question 10

  Which three are true about opatchauto? (Choose three.)
  

  • A. It performs a shutdown and then a restart of all processes in both Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process.
  • B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges.
  • C. Patches are applied via opatchauto.
  • D. Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto.
  • E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before being invoked.
  • F. It applies patches in nonrolling mode by default.
  • G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations.

  Correct Answer: ABG

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of ABG.
  Here's a detailed breakdown of why these choices are correct and why the others are not:
  

  • A is correct: Opatchauto does indeed perform a shutdown and restart of processes in both Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database homes during the patching process. This is a key function of opatchauto, ensuring that the patching process can be applied cleanly and consistently.
  • B is correct: Opatchauto must be invoked by a user with root user privileges. This is because patching often requires modifying system-level files and configurations, which necessitates elevated privileges.
  • G is correct: Opatchauto is designed to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations. This is its primary use case, making it an essential tool for maintaining and updating Oracle environments.

  Here's why the other options are incorrect:

  • C is incorrect: Patches are applied via opatch. Opatchauto automates the process, but the actual patch application is done by opatch. Opatchauto is a wrapper that simplifies and automates the patching process, but it relies on the underlying opatch utility to perform the actual patching.
  • D is incorrect: Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto. While patch plans can be used, they are not always mandatory. Opatchauto can sometimes determine the necessary actions automatically.
  • E is incorrect: Opatchauto requiring instances to be shut down *before* invocation is not always true, and goes against the rolling update benefits that opatchauto can provide.
    
  • F is incorrect: Opatchauto applies patches in nonrolling mode by default. Opatchauto is capable of applying patches in rolling mode, especially in Grid Infrastructure environments, to minimize downtime. Applying patches in nonrolling mode is not the default behavior, and the tool is often used specifically to enable rolling updates.

  Therefore, based on the functionality and requirements of opatchauto, options A, B, and G are the most accurate.