[ServiceNow] CAD - Certified Application Developer ​ Exam Dumps & Study Guide

Free [ServiceNow] CAD - Certified Application Developer ​ Practice Questions Preview

• Question 1

  Which of the following statements is true for the Form Designer? a) To add a field to the form layout, drag the field from the Fields tab to the desired destination on the form. b) To create a new field on a form's table, drag the appropriate data type from the Field Types tab to the form and then configure the new field. c) To remove a field from the form layout, hover over the field to enable the Action buttons, and select the Delete (X) button. d) To add a section to the form layout, drag it from the Field Types tab to the desired destination on the form.
  

  • A. a, b, c, and d
  • B. b, c, and d
  • C. a, b, and d
  • D. a, b, and c

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of D (a, b, and c).
  Reasoning:
  Statements a, b, and c are all true regarding the Form Designer functionality.
  * **Statement a:** Fields can indeed be added to the form layout by dragging them from the Fields tab. * **Statement b:** New fields can be created on the form's table by dragging a data type from the Field Types tab. * **Statement c:** Fields can be removed from the form layout using the Delete (X) button that appears upon hovering. * **Statement d:** Is incorrect because sections are added from the Components tab, not the Field Types tab.
  The AI is confident in this assessment based on common usage and documentation of form designer tools.

  Reason for not choosing other answers:
  Options A, B, and C include statement d, which is false. Option D does not include the statement d, which the AI confirmed it is a wrong statement. Therefore, options A, B, and C are all incorrect.

  Citations:

  • ServiceNow Docs, URL Not Available (General understanding of ServiceNow Form Designer functionality)

• Question 2

  Which of the following are configured in an Email Notification? a) Who will receive the notification. b) What content will be in the notification. c) When to send the notification. d) How to send the notification.
  

  • A. a, b and c
  • B. a, b, and d
  • C. b, c and d
  • D. a, c and d

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer, which is A (a, b, and c).
  Reasoning:
  The question asks what configurations are typically found in email notifications. Let's break down why options a, b, and c are correct:

  • **a) Who will receive the notification:** This is essential. You need to specify the recipient(s) of the email (e.g., a user, a group, or an administrator).
  • **b) What content will be in the notification:** This defines the email's subject, body, and any attachments. It's the core message being conveyed.
  • **c) When to send the notification:** This determines the trigger for the email. Examples include when an event occurs, a scheduled time, or a condition is met.

  Why other options are less suitable:
  While "How to send the notification" might seem relevant at first glance, it's often implicitly handled by the email system itself. The configuration typically doesn't involve specifying low-level details about the sending mechanism (e.g., SMTP settings unless dealing with a custom setup not covered by the general question). The system usually handles *how* the email is sent based on the *who*, *what*, and *when* configurations. Specifying *how* is less common and could be considered redundant in many standard email notification configurations. Therefore, while not entirely incorrect, it's less direct and less commonly configured than options a, b, and c.

  It is important to consider the context of the CAD exam and the level of detail expected in the answer. Given the multiple-choice format, selecting the most comprehensive and universally applicable answer is crucial.

• Question 3

  To see what scripts, reports, and other application artifacts will be in a published application:
  

  • A. Enter the name of the Application in the Global search field
  • B. Open the list of Update Sets for the instance
  • C. Examine the Application Files Related List in the application to be published
  • D. Open the artifact records individually to verify the value in the Application field

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer C.

  Reasoning: The most direct and reliable way to determine which scripts, reports, and other application artifacts are included in a published application is to examine the Application Files Related List within the application record itself. This related list provides a comprehensive view of all the components associated with the application. This is a standard practice in application development within the ServiceNow platform, and the Application Files related list is specifically designed for this purpose.

  Reasons for not choosing other options:

  • A: Entering the application name in the Global search field will help you locate the application record, but it won't directly show you all the application files.
  • B: While Update Sets are used to package and move application changes, simply opening the list of Update Sets won't definitively tell you what's in a specific published application. You'd have to inspect individual Update Sets, which is less efficient.
  • D: Opening artifact records individually to check the Application field would be extremely time-consuming and inefficient, especially for larger applications with many components.

  Therefore, examining the Application Files Related List is the most straightforward and accurate method.

  
  

  While some discussion suggested option B might be relevant if the application has already been published, the Application Files related list provides the most direct and comprehensive view of the application's contents regardless of its publication status.

• Question 4

  Which one of the following is NOT a debugging strategy for client-side scripts?
  

  • A. g_form.addInfoMessage()
  • B. Field Watcher
  • C. jslog()
  • D. gs.log()

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of D. gs.log() as NOT a debugging strategy for client-side scripts.
  Reasoning: The primary reason for choosing option D is that gs.log() is a server-side function and is not available for client-side scripting in ServiceNow. Client-side scripts, such as those running in the browser, cannot directly access the Glide System (gs) object.
  Reasons for not choosing other options:

  • A. g_form.addInfoMessage(): This is a valid client-side method used to display informational messages to the user on the form.
  • B. Field Watcher: Field Watcher is a client-side debugging tool used to monitor the values of fields on a form in real-time.
  • C. jslog(): This is a valid client-side method to write logs to the browser's console, which can be useful for debugging. ServiceNow jslog() Documentation

  In summary, gs.log() is the only option that is exclusively server-side and thus cannot be used as a client-side debugging strategy.

  Citations:

  • ServiceNow jslog() Documentation, https://developer.servicenow.com/dev.do#!/api/client-side/sandiego/c_GlideFormAPI#r_GFM-jslog_String

• Question 5

  Which Application Access configuration field(s) are NOT available if the Can read configuration field is NOT selected?
  

  • A. All access to this table via web services
  • B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete
  • C. Can read does not affect the availability of other Application Access fields
  • D. Allow configuration

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer, which is B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete.
  
  Reasoning: When the "Can read" configuration field is not selected in Application Access settings, it restricts the ability to retrieve or view records in the specified table. Consequently, if a user cannot read the data, the options to create, update, or delete records become irrelevant and are therefore unavailable. This is because creating, updating, and deleting records inherently require read access to the table schema and often to existing data for validation or modification purposes.
  
  Reasons for not selecting other options:

  • A. All access to this table via web services: While deselecting "Can read" might impact web service access, it doesn't directly make the web service access configuration unavailable. The configuration might still be visible, even if the access is restricted due to the "Can read" setting.
  • C. Can read does not affect the availability of other Application Access fields: This is incorrect. As explained above, the "Can read" setting has a direct impact on the availability of create, update, and delete options.
  • D. Allow configuration: The "Allow configuration" field typically pertains to whether the application scope can be modified or configured by users in other scopes. It's not directly linked to the "Can read" setting in the same way that create, update, and delete permissions are.

  Based on the problem description and answer analysis above, the most accurate answer is B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete.

  Citations:

  • Application Access Settings, [No URL Provided]

• Question 6

  Which of the following is NOT a trigger type in Flow Designer?
  

  • A. Outbound Email
  • B. Application
  • C. Record
  • D. Schedule

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer of A (Outbound Email).
  The reason for this choice is that Outbound Email is not a standard trigger type available in ServiceNow Flow Designer. The standard trigger types generally include Record-based triggers, Schedule-based triggers, and Application-based triggers.
  The other options (B, C, and D) are all valid trigger types:
  

  • B (Application): Flows can be triggered by applications, such as SLA Task, Inbound Email, or Service Catalog.
  • C (Record): Flows can be triggered when a record is created, updated, or both.
  • D (Schedule): Flows can be triggered based on a defined schedule.

  Citations:

  • ServiceNow Flow Designer Triggers - ServiceNow Docs, https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/vancouver-platform/page/administer/flow-designer/concept/flow-triggers.html

• Question 7

  When creating new application files in a scoped application, cross scope access is turned on by default in which of the following?
  

  • A. REST messages
  • B. Table
  • C. Script Include
  • D. Workflow

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  The AI assistant agrees with the suggested answer: B. Table.
  
  Reasoning: When creating new application files in a scoped application, cross-scope access is not turned on by default for Tables. Tables require explicit cross-scope privileges to be granted in order for other scopes to access them. This includes privileges to read, write, create, and delete records.
  
  Reasons for not choosing other options:

  • A. REST messages: REST messages do not require explicit cross-scope access configurations in the same way that tables do. By default, REST messages can be configured to allow or deny access.
  • C. Script Include: Script Includes also need configurations, however, table are more fundamental to data access control in scoped applications.
  • D. Workflow: Workflows, similar to REST messages, don't inherently have cross-scope access turned on or off by default. Access is controlled through other mechanisms.

  Tables are the primary data storage mechanism in ServiceNow, making their access control a critical aspect of application security and scope separation. Therefore, unlike other application files, tables require explicit granting of cross-scope access.
  

  Citations:

  • ServiceNow Product Documentation: Scoped Applications, https://developer.servicenow.com/devportal/devdb/jsp/article.jsp?name=scoped_applications

• Question 8

  In an Email Notification, which one of the following is NOT true for the Weight field?
  

  • A. Only Notifications with the highest weight for the same record and recipients are sent
  • B. A Weight value of zero means that no email should be sent
  • C. The Weight value defaults to zero
  • D. A Weight value of zero means the Notification is always sent when the Notification's When to send criteria is met

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  The suggested answer is correct.
  The question asks which statement about the Weight field in Email Notifications is NOT true.
  The reason for choosing option B is that a Weight value of zero in ServiceNow means the notification is always sent when the 'When to send' criteria are met, as confirmed by ServiceNow documentation and community discussions. Therefore, the statement "A Weight value of zero means that no email should be sent" is false.
  The reason for not choosing options A, C, and D is that they are all true based on ServiceNow documentation and common practices:

  • A: Only notifications with the highest weight for the same record and recipients are sent (this is generally true; ServiceNow processes notifications based on weight when multiple notifications could be triggered).
  • C: The Weight value defaults to zero (this is the default behavior in ServiceNow).
  • D: A Weight value of zero means the Notification is always sent when the Notification's 'When to send' criteria are met (this is a key aspect of how weight '0' is handled).

  • ServiceNow Notifications, https://docs.servicenow.com/en-US/bundle/sandiego-platform-administration/page/administer/notification/concept/c_EmailNotifications.html

• Question 9

  Which of the following objects does a Display Business Rule NOT have access to?
  

  • A. previous
  • B. GlideSystem
  • C. g_scratchpad
  • D. current

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  The AI agrees with the suggested answer A (previous).
  Reasoning: Display Business Rules execute before a form is displayed, allowing modifications to the form's appearance and behavior based on the current record. The 'current' object provides access to the record being displayed. 'GlideSystem' (gs) provides access to server-side methods. 'g_scratchpad' allows data transfer from server to client. However, 'previous', which typically holds the record's state before the current changes, is not available in Display Business Rules.
  Reason for not choosing other options:

  • B (GlideSystem): Display Business Rules have access to GlideSystem to perform various server-side operations.
  • C (g_scratchpad): Display Business Rules can use g_scratchpad to pass data to client-side scripts.
  • D (current): Display Business Rules definitely have access to the 'current' object, representing the record being displayed.

  • ServiceNow Business Rules, https://developer.servicenow.com/devportal/learn/courses/servicenow-application-development/application-automation-fundamentals/application-business-rules/application-business-rules

• Question 10

  Which of the following features are available to Global applications? (Choose two.)
  

  • A. Automated Test Framework
  • B. Source Control
  • C. Delegated Development
  • D. Flow Designer

  Correct Answer: AD

  Explanation:

  The AI recommends choosing options A (Automated Test Framework) and D (Flow Designer).
  
  Reasoning:
  Based on the question and available resources, the following points support the suggested answer:

  • Automated Test Framework (ATF): The ATF is a feature available in the Global scope, allowing for automated testing of applications and instances.
  • Flow Designer: Flow Designer is also available in the Global scope, enabling the creation and management of automated workflows.

  Reasons for not choosing the other options:

  • Source Control: While Source Control integration is available in ServiceNow, its availability in the Global scope, as a feature itself, is less direct than ATF and Flow Designer. While it can manage global artifacts, it's not a feature *of* the global scope in the same way. Additionally, based on the ServiceNow documentation, while useful for global scopes, the other two options are more directly related to features within the global scope.
  • Delegated Development: Delegated Development is primarily associated with Scoped Applications, not the Global scope. It allows administrators to grant specific development rights to users within a scoped application.

  It is important to note that while source control can be used with global applications, Automated Test Framework and Flow Designer are core features available directly within the global scope.

  Citation:

  • ServiceNow Automated Test Framework, https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/utca-latest/page/product/automated-test-framework/concept/atf-concept.html
  • ServiceNow Flow Designer, https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/rome-servicenow-platform/page/administer/flow-designer/concept/flow-designer.html